Judah - 20 June 2010 09:13 PM
Well folks, Romans 3:25 is quite specific, it says “for sins past.” (as in “former sins"), meaning that yes, blessed is the man whose sins are forgiven; but it doesn’t say future sins he has not yet committed; and neither do any of the other texts you supplied. They could all easily fall under the guidelines of Romans 3:25. I am afraid you will have to provide more explanation before I can understand what you mean here on this point.
Sorry, Romans 3:25 doesn’t say what you think it says.
for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, and are justified by his grace as a gift, through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus, whom God put forward as a propitiation by his blood, to be received by faith. This was to show God’s righteousness, because in his divine forbearance he had passed over former sins. It was to show his righteousness at the present time, so that he might be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus. Romans 3:23-26
There is a contrast between “former sins” or as KJV put as “sins past” and “the present time”. The contrast is between the time before the cross and after the cross, it’s about history of redemption and not personal application of this redemption. It’s about God manifesting his justice in such a way that he may be just when he justifies the ungodly. The necessity for Christ’s propitiation comes from the fact that God cannot pronounce somebody to be just who’s not actually just without becoming himself unjust with the exception that he executes justice by punishing sins in Christ. In order to be just when he justifies the ungodly, God, while in the past manifested forbearance for the sins of people, does not become unjust in forgetting to punish them, but through Christ’s propitiation had manifested in the present his justice in doing what he did in the past.
God’s mercy doesn’t act apart from his holiness and his justice. God patience in not punishing sins for thousands of years raised the question of his righteousness, and the necessity for God to manifest it, which he did in Christ’s death.
If your interpretation of these texts would be correct, it will left us with Christ dying only for the sins commited in the times of the Old Testament, and we would be lost. That’s why I asked you if Christ died for sins not yet commited when he died, in order to establish the extent of atonement. If we can’t agree that Christ’s atonement dealt with future sins, sins that were not yet committed at his death, there is no reason to proceed further.
Regarding your question about more information, I’m not feeling myself under the obligation to answer your question in detail because you also didn’t answer my question in detail. As you just put a text without an explanation, I put some texts without explanations. Still, since you asked me for the biblical reference for my belief about this, I think I answered your question. You didn’t ask for a commentary or interpretation of the texts, and I answered accordingly.
Gabriel